In the post I´m responding to, you wrote: "Remember also that the extents of Canaan in ancient times included all of Egypt and not only Syria/Phoenicia and Israel/Palestine."
I´ve always thought it to be the other way round: that Egypt in ancient times more or less held dominion over Canaan/Phoenicia/Syria/Palestine or whatever it was called back then. How do you explain your opposite point of view?
I appreciate a lot that you´re trying here to explain the origin of the "Israelites", which I think is a necessary thing if we´re ever going to get somewhere in these matters. Who, really, were they?
Maybe I´ll get the final answer :-) when I get the book I recently ordered, "Tempest & Exodus" by Ralph Ellis. However, actually I only bought it for the strange cover picture: the Hebrew letters aleph and tau forming a cross together with the Greek letters alpha and omega in front of the biblical Ark of the Covenant... Certainly a book cover I could not resist.
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