Osman is saying that "major ideas from the Amarna period ended up in the Serapis cult." The problem is, that is a long time. My feeling is that he is making an assumption without any evidence to back it up. But I have NOT read his books yet. I was wondering if he DOES trace the Amarna period to the Serapis cult in a convincing way in his books.
I don't really care about the gnostic part. I'm sure there are some similarities between the Armana period and the Serapis cult. But if some foreign Greek ruler (or his administration) manufactured the Serapis cult, which is my understanding, then Osman's vague statement holds little weight without some sort of evidence.
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