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Re: ...Or Solomon the Judaized Egyptian?

Yes, read those links and tell me what you think.

I'm also fond of Charles' (and your) typecasting of the Tethmosids. I certainly don't want to get into a debate, as I've kept my mouth shut on it for the several years since Charles first posted his conclusions. They both can work, but Hatshepshut becomes problematic as David's wife. Senusret is a very convincing Solomon. I've never argued the specific identifications on this board, because in a sense, I agree with the conclusion either way. Still the same DNA in the Valley of the Kings. The house of David is still a Pharonic dynasty. Clearly the later authors of the OT got to pick and choose according to the geneology that best fit *their* story, and hid the unmentionable parts.

So...

Yes- "(I)srael" that we read about in the OT is the product of a much later Judean Synthesis, but in response to your first question, the "(i)srael" of the Greeks and Persians was Phoenicia and Egypt, which was politically dominated by these dual identified characters. The ruling elites of the post-Hyksos 18th Dynasty period in Phoenicia, Palestine, and Egypt were members of the 12 tribes, and some of the major personae were indeed biblical patriarchs. We can agree on that.