I am trying to clear up something in my study. You have tied Aristobulus III to Jesus.
In your opinion, are these two figures one and the same...or is it more like the melding of several historical figures (ie. Aristobulus et al) into a single literary figure (Jesus). You had commented one time that comparing Akhenaten to Moses was like comparing an apple to an orange as one is an historic figure and the other is a literary character....does this apple/orange analogy hold true for Aristobulus III / Jesus???
The other area I am confused on is that I have seen more than one source that times Aristobulus IIIs death to +/-35AD...this times close to the crucifixion...but not to the AD 60 or so timeframe of the roman conquest of Jerusalem that...I cannot seem to reconcile this discrepancy.
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