The problem with this last post is 1. It is not disputing what I have said and 2. I don't have a problem with it lol. If they are connoting that they intermarried with the family of laban especially post 2000 bc(which mesopotamia was very mixed/more white by that time) it would make perfect sense for a ruling family in the known world. I already know yuya is a mitanni and that the Rameside dynasty starting with Ramses II are more Asiatic than African. But what you aren't seeing is that why would they make such an important connotation of intermarrying with laban(whiter) in the bible if they were already mixed/whiter from 3400/3000 bc 0 dynasty that is what my argument is. It's very clear that the ruling family became quite mixed over time and if Jacob is african and Esau has more asiatic/whiter/laban they are making this very clear the differences and the beginning of mixing of races VERY LATE though. If you read the story of Jacob and the black and white and spotted sheep(eugenics) this is very clear to me. The mixing of the royal family in the known world seemed a neccesity from what we can see and noone can nor I am refuting this maybe you mis-understand me. BUT, again this is very late in Egyptian pharonic history and you are purporting that this mixing is going on 0 dynasty 3400 bc to 3100 bc which is ridiculous. Israel as you said means ascention to god but it also means "supplanter" and if you can't see that these outsiders of Egypt are supplanting themselves in the "covenant" so to speak all the way up to 700 ad with the jihad muslims then I don't know what to tell you lol. If Sargon is an adam/jacob/isreal he seems to be starting the supplanting 2400 bc tying the turnoid populous into the negro "vine" and forcedly so..makes PERFECT sense I don't know why you don't see this. If man comes from black Africa then why is this so hard to understand that Godship and Kingship comes from black Africa too and spreads all the way into Europe and middle east over thousands of years?
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