I understand the "biblical" rules you are following for joseph jacob and moses but it would seem that joseph is patterned after imhotep then yuya after him rather than vice versa. The biblical rules don't change history as far as yuya being akenaton and amenhotep's father. Especially considering that their were no hebrew slaves in egypt yet the bible says so...so why "wouldn't" the hebraic author venerate yuya being a mitanni slave that worked his way up the ranks saying that he ruled ALL of egypt? Wishful writting/thinking of hebraic authors doesn't make yuya a royal in reality. Your model doesn't really fall apart if yuya isn't a royal and the father of akenaton and amenhotep is all I am saying.
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